Learn Na'vi > Prefixes, Infixes and Suffixes

Why does lenition sometimes seem arbitrary?

(1/4) > >>

Kame Ayyo’koti:
If lenition is to ease pronunciation, why does it sometimes seem arbitrary?

ìlä+, nuä+, wä+ imply to me that words following ä should be lenited.

But then why doesn't kxamlä- cause lenition?





One way to think about it, is: it's a language. They tend to not make much sense. And luckily you don't need to understand how they work, to understand them.
Maybe there is some kind of reasoning for this one, but just remember there won't always be one.


--- Quote ---One way to think about it, is: it's a language.
--- End quote ---
I agree with you.

Kame Ayyo’koti:

--- Quote from: EzyRyder on October 26, 2014, 12:33:02 pm ---One way to think about it, is: it's a language. They tend to not make much sense.
--- End quote ---
I understand that, so I expect there to be irregular forms for many things, and for those things it isn't really a big deal.

What I'm saying is, the raison d'être for lenition is ease of pronunciation. If that's the case, then I would expect it to be universally applicable, as we're dealing with production of sounds, not meaning or wordforms or things of that nature. Why make something in one case easier to pronounce, but not another? That seems unreasonable to me.

Well, I don't know how Pawl has decided that adposition X cause lenition and Y not...
I think, there could be a reason in the language history why some adpositions cause lenition. For example, sre+ is a weird example:
srekrr from sre + krr - not lenited
srese'a from sre +  tse'a - lenited
srekamtrr from sre + kxamtrr - lenited

Frommer likes to create Na'vi like a natural language, that mean: weird exceptions and sometimes weird rules - even like in natural languages.
Btw, the English languages is also full of exceptions especially in pronounciation. :P


[0] Message Index

[#] Next page

Go to full version