Don't Be a Hero and Divide by Zero

Started by Tompa'Ivong, May 28, 2010, 08:50:48 AM

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kewnya txamew'itan

Even if mllte isn't the normal phrase, it certainly isn't wrong (although I'd probably say molte instead of mamllte but in this case that's almost entirely personal preference).
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Tirea Aean

Quote from: kemeoauniaea on June 17, 2010, 04:37:43 PM
Even if mllte isn't the normal phrase, it certainly isn't wrong (although I'd probably say molte instead of mamllte but in this case that's almost entirely personal preference).

This is also true...I just said we don't know if it is correct...I didn't say it was incorrect. ;) I don't have that authority XD

'Oma Tirea

Quote from: Tirea Aean on June 17, 2010, 04:42:47 PM
Quote from: kemeoauniaea on June 17, 2010, 04:37:43 PM
Even if mllte isn't the normal phrase, it certainly isn't wrong (although I'd probably say molte instead of mamllte but in this case that's almost entirely personal preference).

This is also true...I just said we don't know if it is correct...I didn't say it was incorrect. ;) I don't have that authority XD

Well I was saying molte for a while, although mamllte seemed more appropriate.  In either case it is more informal (casual) Na'vi ;)

Formal Na'vi would be "Oe molte".
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Quote from: lapo lesxkxawng on June 17, 2010, 05:02:50 PM
Quote from: Tirea Aean on June 17, 2010, 04:42:47 PM
Quote from: kemeoauniaea on June 17, 2010, 04:37:43 PM
Even if mllte isn't the normal phrase, it certainly isn't wrong (although I'd probably say molte instead of mamllte but in this case that's almost entirely personal preference).

This is also true...I just said we don't know if it is correct...I didn't say it was incorrect. ;) I don't have that authority XD

Well I was saying molte for a while, although mamllte seemed more appropriate.  In either case it is more informal (casual) Na'vi ;)

Formal Na'vi would be "Oe molte".

lol tsari mllte oe XD  hrh

archaic

Human maths is flawed, if you have a number and you divide it by another number you find out howmany of them you get out of the original number.


It stops working when you divide by zero.


How many lots of nothing are there in nothing? ONE !
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Now tell me guys: why do you want to devide by 0?

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kewnya txamew'itan

Quote from: archaic on June 18, 2010, 03:20:58 AM
Human maths is flawed, if you have a number and you divide it by another number you find out howmany of them you get out of the original number.


It stops working when you divide by zero.


How many lots of nothing are there in nothing? ONE !

No, You can prove without too much difficulty that any number can be the solution to 0/0.
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P.A.'li makto

0/0 has no sense, and we MUST STATE it in order to keep other mathematical rules true!

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kewnya txamew'itan

Quote from: P.A.'li makto on June 18, 2010, 04:02:52 AM
0/0 has no sense, and we MUST STATE it in order to keep other mathematical rules true!

Which mathematical rules require that 0/0 has a specific answer? As I say, it's possible to prove that 0/0 can equal any number with no difficulty at all.
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bommel

I remember taht the convergence of lim x-> 0 (f(x)/g(x)) = 0/0 can be examined by the rule of L'Hôpital by examining lim x->0 (f'(x)/g'(x)) - but that has nothing todo with the term 0/0 in general ^^

P.A.'li makto

Look, guys! There are certain axioms in maths. (One of them is that WE DO NOT DEVIDE BY 0.) We don't explain them, or prove them, nor argue with them! They are just simply accepted. Understand? And if you don't listen to me, I warn you, You're gonna be sent out of the classroom!!! (screamed in a high voice)

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bommel

Quote from: P.A.'li makto on June 18, 2010, 04:55:02 AM
Look, guys! There are certain axioms in maths. (One of them is that WE DO NOT DEVIDE BY 0.) We don't explain them, or prove them, nor argue with them! They are just simply accepted. Understand? And if you don't listen to me, I warn you, You're gonna be sent out of the classroom!!! (screamed in a high voice)
I won't divide by zero (is bad ^^), just said this http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L%27Hôpital%27s_rule.

kewnya txamew'itan

Quote from: bommel on June 18, 2010, 04:45:12 AM
I remember taht the convergence of lim x-> 0 (f(x)/g(x)) = 0/0 can be examined by the rule of L'Hôpital by examining lim x->0 (f'(x)/g'(x)) - but that has nothing todo with the term 0/0 in general ^^

Yep, you can use L'hôpital's rule in reverse by integrating (as there are an infinite possible values for the integral of 0), or you can just take out factors.

0/0=(2/3)*(0/0)=(5/7)*(0/0) this statement cannot be true (well, unless we assume that 0/0=0, but that can be disproved using the method above.

Quote from: P.A.'li makto on June 18, 2010, 04:55:02 AM
Look, guys! There are certain axioms in maths. (One of them is that WE DO NOT DEVIDE BY 0.) We don't explain them, or prove them, nor argue with them! They are just simply accepted. Understand? And if you don't listen to me, I warn you, You're gonna be sent out of the classroom!!! (screamed in a high voice)

Sorry, I thought you meant 0/0 having a value was an axiom whereas you actually meant the opposite (which is, of course, correct).
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P.A.'li makto

OK, you can stay in class. (in a lowered voice)

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Tirea Aean

Quote from: archaic on June 18, 2010, 03:20:58 AM
Human maths is flawed, if you have a number and you divide it by another number you find out howmany of them you get out of the original number.


It stops working when you divide by zero.


How many lots of nothing are there in nothing? ONE !

hrh......how many units of nothing are in nothing...that would be one nothing. hahaha...but with that logic, any number times zero would mean that number of nothings...wth?? 0.0

'Oma Tirea

Quote from: Tirea Aean on June 18, 2010, 11:04:32 AM
Quote from: archaic on June 18, 2010, 03:20:58 AM
How many lots of nothing are there in nothing? ONE !

hrh......how many units of nothing are in nothing...that would be one nothing. hahaha...but with that logic, any number times zero would mean that number of nothings...wth?? 0.0


Actually, it could be 0, 1, 2, 5, 29376, 321654179456010, etc.

This is why it is undefined (and if it is possible, then 1=2, and by similar processes, -∞=∞!)
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kewnya txamew'itan

Quote from: lapo lesxkxawng on June 18, 2010, 04:28:35 PM
This is why it is undefined (and if it is possible, then 1=2, and by similar processes, -∞=∞!)

I forgot all of the hilarious proofs that for x=/=y that x=y if you just allow dividing by 0
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archaic

Quote from: lapo lesxkxawng on June 18, 2010, 04:28:35 PM
Quote from: Tirea Aean on June 18, 2010, 11:04:32 AM
Quote from: archaic on June 18, 2010, 03:20:58 AM
How many lots of nothing are there in nothing? ONE !

hrh......how many units of nothing are in nothing...that would be one nothing. hahaha...but with that logic, any number times zero would mean that number of nothings...wth?? 0.0


Actually, it could be 0, 1, 2, 5, 29376, 321654179456010, etc.

This is why it is undefined (and if it is possible, then 1=2, and by similar processes, -∞=∞!)

Perfectly possible if both a and b = Zero
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kewnya txamew'itan

No it isn't. If you assume that a=b=0 and that it is possible to equal 0 then the last step 2b=b -> 2=1 is perfectly valid, clearly it isn't QED by reductio ad absurdem.
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