To do

Started by MIPP, August 27, 2010, 05:39:28 AM

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MIPP

Hey there!

I was wondering if we have a word for "to do"... Actually, since I'm learning that I wonder about this. Now I know we don't, only ngop (to create) or txula (to build):
Quote from: Na'vi in a NutshellLanguage Note #5.6: In many cases si sounds like it could mean to do/make but it cannot
be used as such by itself. The closest verbs we have for "to make" is txula to build and ngop
to create.

But, in the movie, Neytiri says to Tsu'tey:

- Ma Tsu'tey, kempe si nga?

And he answers:

- Fayvrrtep fìtseng lu kxanì


So, may we use "si" to say "to do" (not in the meaning of creatign something, but be doing or have done something)?
Na'vi for beginners | Dict-Na'vi.com

Hufwe lìng io pay, nìfnu slä nìlaw.
Loveless, Act IV.

kewnya txamew'itan

Si can only be used with something else. In Neytiri's line that something else is "kem", I'd deduce from this that a generic action verb would be "kem si" but I can't think of any situations when it would be needed that aren't the same basic situation as Neytiri's line.

Quote from: MIPP on August 27, 2010, 05:39:28 AM
I was wondering if we have a word for "to do"...

Why do we need one? English uses "to do" far more than is necessary, often using it as a verb equivalent of "it" "he" or "she" so it refers back to the previous verb. My understanding is that Spanish is, on the other hand very sparse in its use of hacer usually using it as "to make", the only times I can think of where it means "to do" instead are questions and in those situations "kempe si" works fine.
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MIPP

Quote from: kewnya txamew'itan on August 27, 2010, 07:50:38 AM
Si can only be used with something else. In Neytiri's line that something else is "kem", I'd deduce from this that a generic action verb would be "kem si" but I can't think of any situations when it would be needed that aren't the same basic situation as Neytiri's line.

Quote from: MIPP on August 27, 2010, 05:39:28 AM
I was wondering if we have a word for "to do"...

Why do we need one? English uses "to do" far more than is necessary, often using it as a verb equivalent of "it" "he" or "she" so it refers back to the previous verb. My understanding is that Spanish is, on the other hand very sparse in its use of hacer usually using it as "to make", the only times I can think of where it means "to do" instead are questions and in those situations "kempe si" works fine.

They use 'si' as 'to do' much more times.

"Tsamsiyu! Txopu rä'ä si! Tsamsiyu!" 
"Tsakem rä'ä si"
"Kehe! Tsu'tey! Rä'ä si"
"Txopu rä'ä si! Txopu rä'ä si!"

Na'vi for beginners | Dict-Na'vi.com

Hufwe lìng io pay, nìfnu slä nìlaw.
Loveless, Act IV.

Payä Tìrol

Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P
Oeyä atanìl mì sìvawm, mipa tìreyä tìsìlpeyur yat terìng

MIPP

Quote from: Payä Tìrol on August 27, 2010, 08:08:03 AM
Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P

I think it does, but in the movie the na'vi is not always correct :S
Na'vi for beginners | Dict-Na'vi.com

Hufwe lìng io pay, nìfnu slä nìlaw.
Loveless, Act IV.

Payä Tìrol

Well, unless it was pronounced wrong and that line is actually something completely different, wasn't all the Na'vi in the movie done by PF? I know there were a couple of words from JC, but those were things he had incorporated into the language.
I think it's safe to say it was correct at one point if the line is what we think it is :P
Oeyä atanìl mì sìvawm, mipa tìreyä tìsìlpeyur yat terìng

kewnya txamew'itan

Quote from: Payä Tìrol on August 27, 2010, 08:08:03 AM
Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P

This is broadly correct. Remember that if a si verb has been established then the si can be used on its own e.g.:

A: txopu rä'ä si
B: slä oe si
A: fpivìl nga na ikran, ikran txopu ke si.

Quote from: MIPP on August 27, 2010, 08:13:21 AM
Quote from: Payä Tìrol on August 27, 2010, 08:08:03 AM
Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P

I think it does, but in the movie the na'vi is not always correct :S

All the na'vi lines were written by Frommer so are all broadly correct grammatically (the pronunciation is often poor and, in the case of Sigourney's lines, atrociousv however) . The only grammatical errors come when Cameron decided a line would sound better another way in which case his choice went forward and in most of those cases, the grammar has been adjusted to make it correct.
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http://bit.ly/53GnAB
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txo nga new oehu pivlltxe nìna'vi, nga oer 'eylan si mì fayspuk (http://bit.ly/bp9fwf)
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MIPP

Quote from: kewnya txamew'itan on August 27, 2010, 09:44:29 AM
Quote from: Payä Tìrol on August 27, 2010, 08:08:03 AM
Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P

This is broadly correct. Remember that if a si verb has been established then the si can be used on its own e.g.:

A: txopu rä'ä si
B: slä oe si
A: fpivìl nga na ikran, ikran txopu ke si.

Quote from: MIPP on August 27, 2010, 08:13:21 AM
Quote from: Payä Tìrol on August 27, 2010, 08:08:03 AM
Txopu si and kem si are in there. Third one looks like si being used by itself... maybe kem si is used often enough that it would be implicitly understood if you omitted the kem? In that case, si by itself would actually mean "to do", wouldn't it? :P

I think it does, but in the movie the na'vi is not always correct :S

All the na'vi lines were written by Frommer so are all broadly correct grammatically (the pronunciation is often poor and, in the case of Sigourney's lines, atrociousv however) . The only grammatical errors come when Cameron decided a line would sound better another way in which case his choice went forward and in most of those cases, the grammar has been adjusted to make it correct.

Tam, slä ma Kewnya,

about the sentence "Kehe! Tsu'tey! Rä'ä si" it is clear to me that "si" is used as "to do".
Na'vi for beginners | Dict-Na'vi.com

Hufwe lìng io pay, nìfnu slä nìlaw.
Loveless, Act IV.

kewnya txamew'itan

Just looked at the context of that line. I agree that it looks odd. Bear in mind that the na'vi there is just a best guess from the film's audio. That said, I'm struggling to come up with an alternative that would sound similar so I think that Cameron didn't like the line "kehe! Ma Tsu'Tey rä'ä tivakuk"/"kehe! Ma Tsu'Tey fìkem rä'ä si" (remember that the vocative was also dropped in what we think the audio says) and had Frommer rework it.
Internet Acronyms Nìna'vi

hamletä tìralpuseng lena'vi sngolä'eiyi. tìkangkem si awngahu ro
http://bit.ly/53GnAB
The translation of Hamlet into Na'vi has started! Join with us at http://bit.ly/53GnAB

txo nga new oehu pivlltxe nìna'vi, nga oer 'eylan si mì fayspuk (http://bit.ly/bp9fwf)
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numena'viyä hapxì amezamkivohinve
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